Đề thi thử Đại học số 19 tiếng Anh khối D

Nội dung text: Đề thi thử Đại học số 19 tiếng Anh khối D

1. ĐỀ THI THỬ ĐẠI HỌC SỐ 19 Môn: TIẾNG ANH; Khối D Thời gian làm bài: 90 phút, không kể thời gian phát đề ĐỀ THI GỒM 80 CÂU (TỪ QUESTION 1 ĐẾN QUESTION 80) I. Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word whose main stress is placed differently from that of the rest in each of the following questions. Question 1 A. international B. information C. elimination D. competition Question 2 A. retire B. compete C. announce D. trophy Question 3 A. consider B. popular C. organize D. continent Question 4 A. historic B. national
2. C. unusual D. cathedral Question 5 A. forester B. policy C. erosion D. vegetable II. Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the following questions. Question 6: So little___about mathematics that the lecture was completely beyond me. A. I have known B. I knew C. do I know D. did I know Question 7: ___so aggressive, we’d get on much better. A. She was not B. Weren’t she C. Had she not D. If she weren’t Question 8:A: ___. B: Oh, thank you. I just got it yesterday. A. When have you got this beautiful dress? B. You’ve just bought this beautiful dress, haven’t you? C. How a beautiful dress you’re wearing! D. That’s a beautiful dress you have on! Question 9: A washing machine of this type will certainly___ normal domestic use.
3. A. stand up for B. come up with C. get on to D. take down with Question 10: I studied English for four years in high school. ___ had trouble talking with people when I was traveling in the US. A. Therefore,I B. Otherwise, I C. Although I D. However, I Question 11: Carbon dioxide may be absorbed by trees or water bodies, or it may stay in the atmosphere when___ , while it is only in the atmosphere that chlorofluorocarbons find their home. A. by releasing emissions from cars B. released from car emissions C. cars that release emissions D. emissions are released by cars Question 12: ___in the atmosphere is the temperature falling below freezing. A. Frost is produced B. Frost produces C. What produces frost D. What is frost produced Question 13: He said that the plane had already left and that I___ an hour earlier. A. must have arrived B. had to arrive C. should have arrived D. was supposed to arrive
4. Question 14: There seems to be a large ___ between the number of people employed in service industries, and those employed in the primary sectors. A. discriminate B. discretion C. discrepancy D. distinguish Question 15: British and Australian people share the same language, but in other respects they are as different as ___. A. cats and dogs B. salt and pepper C. chalk and cheese D. here and there Question 16:A: This grammar test is the hardest one we’ve ever had this semester! B:___ but I think it’s quite easy. A. I couldn’t agree more. B. I understand what you’re saying. C. You’re right. D. I don’t see in that way. Question 17: There are many opportunities for career___if you work for that company. A. system B. progression C. succession D. sequence Question 18: We planned everything carefully, but unfortunately the holiday didn’t meet our___. A. suspicions B. calculations C. hopes
5. D. expectations Question 19: I’m writing to apply for the___ of interpreter, which was advertised on T. V last night. A. position B. work C. task D. role Question 20: Your responsibilities___managing a team of 4 people, and setting up meetings with clients. A. consider B. have C. involve D. engage Question 21: ___it’s raining, they are still going to the zoo. A. However B. Although C. Furthermore D. But Question 22: ___ is the best policy, so be yourself. A. Youth B. Modesty C. Happiness D. Sincerity Question 23: Don’t try too hard. Don’t___off more than you can___. A. eat – swallow B. eat – chew
6. C. bite – swallow D. bite - chew Question 24: ___ are hot is a common misconception. A. All deserts B. All deserts which C. Of all deserts D. That all deserts Question 25: Only twenty years ago, most doctors agreed ___truthful with their terminally ill patients, a trend that has reserved itself in modern medical practice. A. don’t be B. not to be C. we shouldn’t been D. be not to III. Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that is closest in meaning to each of the following questions. Question 26: The robbers made the bank manager hand over the money. A. The bank manager was forced to hand over the money by the robbers. B. The bank manager was allowed to hand over the money by the robbers. C. The bank manager was made hand over the money by the robbers. D. The robbers helped the bank manager to hand over the money. Question 27: It was only because his wife helped him that he was able to finish his book. A. Without his wife’s help, he couldn’t have finished his book. B. If it weren’t for his wife’s help, he couldn’t have finished his book. C. If only he had been able to finish his book. D. But for his wife’s help, he couldn’t finish his book. Question 28: “Sorry, Madam. Looking after the garden is not my duty.” A. He apologized for not looking after the garden.
7. B. He not promised to look after the garden. C. He said that he was not responsible for looking after the garden. D. He asked if looking after the garden was his duty. Question 29: Scientists say forests are being destroyed by air pollution. A. Forests are said to be destroyed by scientists. B. Scientists blame air pollution for the destruction of forests. C. Scientists are blamed for destroying forests. D. Scientists say there’s much air pollution in the forests. Question 30: Much as he loved her, he couldn’t forgive her for what she had done. A. He didn’t forgive her for what she had done despite loving her very much. B. He loved her so much, that’s why he forgave her for what she had done. C. He didn’t forgive her for what she had done as he loved her very much. D. She loved him very much, so he forgave her for what she had done. IV. Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to show the underlined part that needs correction in each of the following questions. Question 31: It was suggested that Pedro studies (A) the material more (B) thoroughly before attempting (C) to pass (D) the exam. A B C D Question 32: All nations may have to make (A) fundamental changes in (B) their economic, political, and the technological institutions (C) if they are to preserve (D) environment. A B C D Question 33: All of (A) the mammals, dolphins are undoubtedly among (B) the friendly (C) to human (D). A B
8. C D Question 34: Chicago's Sears Tower, now (A) the tallest building in the world, rises (B) 1,522 feet (C) from the ground to the top of it (D) antenna. A B C D Question 35: In just (A) three months H.G. Wells wrote (B) the famous classic The Time Machine for what (C) he won a (D) Newberry Caldecot award. A B C D V. Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct word for each of the blanks from 36 to 45. COULD COMPUTER GAMES BE GOOD FOR YOU AFTER ALL In Britain, the average young person now spends more money on games each year than on going to the cinema or renting videos. But is this (36)___a bad thing? For years, newspaper reports have been (37) ___that children who spend too much time playing computer games become unsociable, bad- tempered, even violent as a (38)___ But new research, (39) ___out in both Europe and the USA, suggests that the opposite may be true. Indeed, playing some of the more complicated games may help people of all ages to improve certain skills. Researchers claim that this is because the games (40)___the brain work harder in certain ways, like (41)___ sounds and movements quickly and identifying what they are. The fact that people play the games repeatedly (42)___ that they get a lot of practice in these skills which are therefore likely to become highly developed. Social skills may benefit, too. Researchers in Chicago think that fans of first- person shooter games (43)___ “Counterstrike” are better than non-players when it comes to building trust and co-operation, and that this (44)___them to make good friendships and become strong members of their communities. So rather than (45) ___up computer games, perhaps young people need to spend more time on them?
9. Question 36: A. necessarily B. certainly C. fully D. nearly Question 37: A. speaking B. informing C. telling D. saying Question 38: A. product B. result C. reason D. conclusion Question 39: A. worked B. thought C. turned D. carried Question 40: A. make B. force C. push D. keep Question 41: A. realizing B. noticing C. imagining D. solving Question 42: A. means B. asks
10. C. brings D. causes Question 43: A. in order to B. such as C. due to D. as well as Question 44: A. supports B. helps C. shows D. serves Question 45: A. giving B. ending C. taking D. stopping VI. Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer for each of the questions from 46 to 55. Butterflies are among the most extensively studied insects - an estimated 90 percent of the world's species have scientific names. As a consequence, they are perhaps the best group of insects for examining patterns of terrestrial biotic diversity and distribution. Butterflies also have a favorable image with the general public. Hence, they are an excellent group for communicating information on science and conservation issues such as diversity. Perhaps the aspect of butterfly diversity that has received the most attention over the past century is the striking difference in species richness between tropical and temperate regions. For example, in 1875 one biologist pointed out the diversity of butterflies in the Amazon when he mentioned that about 700 species were found within an hour's walk, whereas the total number found on the British islands did not exceed 66, and the whole of Europe supported only 321. This early comparison of tropical and temperate butterfly richness has been well confirmed. A general theory of diversity would have to predict not only this difference between temperate and tropical zones, but also patterns within each region, and how these patterns vary among different animal and plant groups. However, for butterflies, variation of species richness within temperate or tropical regions, rather man between them, is poorly understood. Indeed, comparisons of numbers of species among the Amazon basin, tropical Asia, and Africa are still mostly "personal communication" citations, even for vertebrates. In other words, unlike
11. comparison between temperate and tropical areas, these patterns are still in the documentation phase. In documenting geographical variation in butterfly diversity, some arbitrary, practical decisions are made. Diversity, number of species, and species richness are used synonymously; little is known about the evenness of butterfly distribution. The New World butterflies make up the preponderance of examples because they are the most familiar species. It is hoped that by focusing on them, the errors generated by imperfect and incomplete taxonomy will be minimized. Question 46: Which aspect of butterflies does the passage mainly discuss? A. Their physical characteristics B. Their adaptation to different habitats C. Their names D. Their variety Question 47: The word "consequence" in line 2 is closest in meaning to ___. A. result B. explanation C. analysis D. requirement Question 48: Butterflies are a good example for communicating information about conservation issues because they___ . A. are simple in structure B. have been given scientific names C. are viewed positively by people D. are found mainly in temperate climates Question 49: The word "striking" in line 7 is closest in meaning to ___. A. physical B. confusing C. noticeable D. successful Question 50: The word “exceed” in line 10 is closest in meaning to___. A. locate B. allow C. go beyond D. come close to
12. Question 51: How many types of butterflies was found on the British islands? A. 700 B. 66 C. 67 D. 321 Question 52: All of the followings are mentioned as being important parts of a general theory of diversity EXCEPT ___. A. differences between temperate and tropical zones B. patterns of distribution of species in each region C. migration among temperate and tropical zones D. variation of patterns of distribution of species among different animals and plants Question 53: The author mentions tropical Asia in line 5 of paragraph 4 as an example of a location where___. A. butterfly behavior varies with climate B. a general theory of butterfly diversity has not yet been firmly established C. butterflies are affected by human populations D. documenting plant species is more difficult than documenting butterfly species Question 54: Which of the following is NOT well understood by biologists? A. European butterfly habitats B. Differences in species richness between temperate and tropical regions C. Differences in species richness within a temperate or a tropical region D. Comparisons of behavior patterns of butterflies and certain animal groups Question 55: The word "generated" in line 23 is closest in meaning to ___. A. requested B. caused C. assisted D. estimated VII. Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the questions from 56 to 65. It takes a long time to raise a family of owlets, so the great horned owl begins early in the year. In January and February, or as late as March in the North, the male calls to the female with a resonant hoot. The female is larger than the male. She sometimes reaches a 5 body length of twenty-two to twenty-four inches, with a wingspread up to fifty inches. To impress her, the male does a strange courtship dance. He bobs. He bows. He ruffles his feathers and hops around with an important air. He flutters from limb to limb and makes flying sorties into the air. Sometimes
13. he returns with an offering of food. They share the repast, after which she joins the dance, hopping and bobbing about as though keeping time to the beat of an inner drum. Owls are poor home builders. They prefer to nest in a large hollow in a tree or even to occupy the deserted nest of a hawk or crow. These structures are large and rough, built of sticks and bark and lined with leaves and feathers. Sometimes owls nest 20 on a rocky ledge, or even on the bare ground. The mother lays two or three round, dull white eggs. Then she stoically settles herself on the nest and spreads her feather skirts about her to protect her precious charges from snow and cold. It is five weeks before the first downy white owlet pecks its way out of the shell. As the young birds feather out, they look like wise old men with their wide eyes and quizzical expressions. They clamor for food and keep the parents busy supplying mice, squirrels, rabbits, crayfish, and beetles. Later in the season baby crows are taken. Migrating songsters, waterfowl, and game birds all fall prey to the hungry family. It is nearly ten weeks before fledglings leave the nest to search for their own food. The parent birds weary of family life by November and drive the young owls away to establish hunting ranges of their own. Question 56: What is the topic of this passage? A. Raising a family of great horned owls B. Mating rituals of great horned owls C. Nest building of great horned owls D. Habits of young great horned owls Question 57: In line 2-3, the phrase "a resonant hoot” is closest in meaning to___. A. an instrument B. a sound C. a movement D. an offering of food Question 58: It can be inferred from the passage that the courtship of great horned owls ___. A. takes place on the ground B. is an active process C. happens in the fall D. involves the male alone Question 59: According to the passage, great horned owls ___. A. are discriminate nest builders B. need big nests for their numerous eggs C. may inhabit a previously used nest D. build nests on tree limbs
14. Question 60: According to the passage, which of the following is the mother owl's job? A. To initiate the courtship ritual B. To feed the young C. To sit on the nest D. To build the nest Question 61: The phrase "precious charges” in lines 13 refers to ___. A. the eggs B. the nest C. the hawks and crows D. other nesting owls Question 62: According to the passage, young owlets eat everything EXCEPT ___. A. other small birds B. insects C. small mammals D. nuts and seeds Question 63: In line 15, the word "they” refers to ___. A. the wise old men B. the adult birds C. the young birds D. the prey Question 64: What can be inferred from the passage about the adult parents of the young great horned owls? A. They are sorry to see their young leave home. B. They are lazy and careless about feeding the small owlets. C. They probably don't see their young after November. D. They don't eat while they are feeding their young. Question 65: The phrase "weary of” in line 19 is closest in meaning to___. A. tire of B. become sad about C. support D. are attracted to VIII. Choose the correct sentence which has the same meaning as the given one. Question 66: If you are disappointed with an inexpensive bicycle, then save your money for a more expensive model.
15. A. You should save up to buy a more expensive bicycle if your inexpensive one disappoints you. B. An inexpensive bicycle is disappointing, so buy an expensive one. C. A more expensive bicycle saves you much money, so don't buy an inexpensive model. D. You'd better buy an inexpensive bicycle to save more money. Question 67: You should take regular exercises instead of sitting in front of the television all day. A. Sitting in front of the television all day and taking exercises is advisable. B. Don't take regular exercises, just sit in front of the television all day instead. C. Sitting in front of the television all day helps you take regular exercises. D. Taking regular exercises is better than sitting in front of the television all day. Question 68: Who made you work so hard yesterday? A. Why did you work so hard yesterday ? B. What made you work so hard yesterday? C. Who forced you to work so hard yesterday? D. How could you work so hard yesterday? Question 69: Only with careful environmental planning can we protect the world in which we live. A. Careful environmental planning protects the world we live in. B. We can protect the world we live in only with careful environmental planning. C. Protecting the world we live in, we plan the environment carefully. D. Planning the environment carefully, we can protect the world in which we live. Question 70: My brother and I dressed as quickly as we could, but we missed the school bus and were late for school today. A. My brother and I were late for school because we dressed too quickly. B. My brother and I dressed quickly but were late for school because we missed the school bus. C. My brother and I missed the school bus so we were late for school D. My brother and I could dress quickly but could not be in time for school. IX. Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct word for each of the blanks from 71 to 80. If you're an environmentalist, plastic is a word you tend to say with a sneer or a snarl. It has become a symbol of our wasteful, throw- away society. But there seems little doubt it is here to stay, and the truth is, of course, that plastic has brought enormous ( 71) ___even environmental evil- it's the way society chooses to uses and ( 72) ___them. Almost all the 50 or so different kinds of modern plastic are made from oil, gas or coal- non- renewable natural ( 73) ___. We (74) ___well over three million tones of the stuff in Britain each year and, sooner or later, most of it is thrown away. A high ( 75)
16. ___ of our annual consumption is in the form of packaging, and this (76) ___about seven per cent by weight of our domestic refuse. Almost all of it could be recycled, but very little of it is, though the plastic recycling (77) ___is growing fast. The plastics themselves are extremely energy-rich- they have a higher calorific (78) ___than coal and one (79) ___of "recovery" strongly favoured by the plastic manufacturers is the ( 80) ___ of waste plastic into a fuel. Question 71: A. savings B. pleasures C. benefits D. profits Question 72: A. abuse B. endanger C. store D. dispose Question 73: A. processes B. resources C. products D. fuels Question 74: A. import B. consign C. remove D. consume Question 75: A. amount B. proportion C. portion D. rate Question 76: A. makes B. carries
17. C. takes D. constitutes Question 77: A. industry B. manufacture C. plant D. factory Question 78: A. demand B. effect C. value D. degree Question 79: A. medium B. method C. measure D. mechanism Question 80: A. melting B. conversion C. change D. replacement